Path: paganini.bofh.team!eternal-september.org!reader01.eternal-september.org!news.mixmin.net!.POSTED!not-for-mail From: "NightBulb.net" Newsgroups: alt.religion.christian.roman-catholic,alt.bible,alt.religion.christian Subject: Re: True translations vs false translations Followup-To: alt.bible Date: Tue, 20 Dec 2022 14:14:03 -0600 Organization: Mixmin Message-ID: References: Mime-Version: 1.0 Content-Type: text/plain; charset=UTF-8; format=flowed Content-Transfer-Encoding: 8bit Injection-Date: Thu, 22 Dec 2022 05:27:18 -0000 (UTC) Injection-Info: news.mixmin.net; posting-host="d2ecf279f9db57a3ecf3e5985e9bfed2f945d15a"; logging-data="2843688"; mail-complaints-to="abuse@mixmin.net" Content-Language: en-US In-Reply-To: Xref: paganini.bofh.team alt.religion.christian.roman-catholic:1154226 alt.bible:653954 alt.religion.christian:795839 On 12/15/22 11:05, zebra2@windstream.net wrote: > True translations vs false translations Time to debunk some nonsense. The Jehobuzz Witless scholar does not even know the difference between translation and transliteration yet pretends to be a purveyor of bible truth. > True-- NWT > (Joel 2:32) And everyone who calls on the name of Jehovah will be > saved... This is not a translation at all. It is a transliteration. The word, "Jehovah" is copied over instead of being translated. Thus it is a transliteration rather than a translation. You need to learn the difference between translation and transliteration. "Jehovah" is an anglicized pronunciation of an ancient Hebrew word. By copying the name over, instead of giving the English equivalent, it is not translated. Thus the reader is left to wonder what the word, "Jehovah" actually means. > True-- Darby's Bible > Joel 2:32 And it shall be that whosoever shall call upon the name of > Jehovah shall be saved... This is not a translation at all. It is a transliteration. The word, "Jehovah" is copied over instead of being translated. Thus it is a transliteration rather than a translation. > False-- New King James > Joel 2:32 And it shall come to pass that whoever calls on the name of > the Lord shall be saved... This is the only version presented by you that is an actual complete translation. And you call this translation "false" proving you don't know what the hell you are talking about. The King James translators correctly translated the Hebrew title, "Jehovah" into the English, "LORD." Jehovah is from the Hebrew JHWH, or the letters, jot, eh, vwau, eh. The Hebrew word, JEHOVAH means "Lord" in ancient Hebrew. It was consistently translated this way in the LXX into the Greek for LORD. That's right, boys and girls, JEHOVAH is Hebrew for LORD. What a shocker! Yet most Christians don't know this fact. None of you knew this. If you pretend to have known it I will prove you a liar. None of you knew that JEHOVAH is an ancient Hebrew word for LORD. Even the ancient pictograph of the word, JEHOVAH tells us this, with the JOT being the outstretched arm of might. Any bible scholar with a career track in textual criticism can tell you this. Generally they don't waste their time arguing with religious nuts who read their religious agendas into the text of the bible. They're too busy trying to improve their bible translation. JEHOVAH = LORD. JEHOVAH is a compound word in ancient Hebrew. Like many other words, it has multiple meanings, and multiple pronunciations depending on the meaning it is being used for. The pronunciation you are accustomed to, Jeh-ho-vah, means: He that causes to be, or he that is being, or he that is living. Thus in English we have, "I AM." This is a good translation, since English lacks some of the Hebrew sense of the phrase, it will have to do. Someone's LORD or MASTER is the keeper of their life. Someone's LORD is their protector, or their MIGHTY ARM of stability that watches over them. If you view the ancient pictographs for the word, JEHOVAH, the letters of the word tell the meaning. JW James, you need to stop pretending to be a bible teacher. You're making a fool out of yourself. The KJV translators CORRECTLY translated JEHOVAH into the English LORD. By transliterating the name, rather than translating it, the Witchtower Society is preventing people from knowing the actual meaning of the name JEHOVAH. > ........................................................................................................... > > True--NWT > Luke 1:35 In answer the angel said to her: “Holy spirit will come > upon you, and power of the Most High will overshadow you. And for that > reason the one who is born will be called holy, God’s Son." > > True-- New King James > Luke 1:35 And the angel answered and said to her, "The Holy Spirit > will come upon you, and the power of the Highest will overshadow you; > therefore, also, that Holy One who is to be born will be called the > Son of God. > > False - New King James > John 1:1 In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, > and the Word was God. The word "God" used herein is THEOS. The Greek THEOS is a grammatical form of THEO or THAU and is from the root, THEO or TAU, which is cognate to both Indo-European and Semitic TAW, which means a spike or taproot or digging tool, or shovel. As used here it means PLANTER. In the Beginning was the LOGOS, and the LOGOS was with the PLANTER, and the LOGOS was the PLANTER. Both the Father and Son are operating the same farm, so they are both THE PLANTER. It's a family farm. "The world is like a field into which a farmer (planter, theos) sowed grain ..." None of you knew this or ever heard it. The Jehobuzz Witless cult never heard it or considered it. In Genesis where it says "In the Beginning God created the heavens and the earth" the Hebrew is: "bai rashith barau elohim etha shchyim v'ont etha urthz." bai rashith = "through, within, the beginning, the chief" barau = "to plant" elohim = "tree over the waters" schyim = "sky" (modern Hebrew pronunces it sha-mah-yeem but it is also schkay-im) urthz = "earth" (modern Hebrew prounounces it ha'aretz) "bai" means 'by, through, within, in the house, or by way of and rashith means, "beginning, chief, or firstborn." The phrase "in the beginning" here means "by or in the firstborn." barau is cognate to proto-germanic and proto-english "boer, burrow," meaning to dig, plant, or farm, hence we get 'farmer, planter' ... barau also means to grow or fatten up, and is related to Indo-European 'berry' or 'fruit'. A fruit worthy of repentance! The KJV translators did NOT get this verse wrong in their translation, but since English has changed some sense is lost of the full meaning. A very accurate poetical translation of Genesis 1:1 would be: "In the Firstborn Chief above All, or by the First Fruit, the Mighty Tree over the Nations rooted them (nations) in the heavens and the earth." John tells us that by and through Jesus Christ were all things (living creatures, nations) made. Genesis 1:1 is telling us EXACTLY the same thing. Jesus and the Father were together, with one unified purpose, and both of them bore the title of THEOS or ELOHIM or JEHOVAH. All that the Father has he conferred upon the son, including his NAME, even to be set down in the Father's throne. Thus for JW James to imply "a God" in John 1 is just nonsense. "THEOS" is the title of the position for the job at hand: planter of nations, tending of a great international family tree of many nations growing from one root, or "Elohim" with the firstborn or firstfruit as the SEED from which it will grow. Once again the King James is very, very correct with its translation. English just doesn't have the symbolic and idomatic sense of the original Hebrew words. Meanwhile the pretend 'bible scholar' JW James gets it wrong, while pretending to be a teacher of truth. "In the Beginning" is NOT a temporal phrase indicating a time period. It is a PROPER NAME of a person, indicating the person in whom a job and authority was commissioned. That Person is Jesus Christ: "I am the Alpha and the Omega, the Beginning and the End ..." Jesus is the person named, "In the Beginning." > True-- (John 1:1) In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with > God, and the Word was a god. "a god" is absolutely not implied in John 1:1 Both Theos are equated to each other as consanguine. The use of THEOS in this passage equates the father and the son as holding the same office or title. It is a SHARED TITLE OF AUTHORITY conferred by a Monarch to His Son. This is the sense of the Greek text. Not the sense that James the JW is trying to portray. "All that the Father hath he hath given into the hands of the Son." > True-- - International English > John 1:1 In the beginning, there was the Word. The Word was with > God. The Word was deity. Here the same word is translated with two different meanings. How cute. When my Father puts me in charge of the family business I have the same authority that he has, yet my Father is greater than me because he bore me and the business. But in the business I am equal to the father, with all authority to do all the things he does. This is the sense of John 1:1. [.....] -- Nightbulb | https://blog.nightbulb.net | Flip the night switch. If tacky red hats annoy Pharisees I want to buy hats for the whole town.